Following the Minister of Humanitarian Affairs, Disaster Management and Social Development, Sadiya Umar Farouq’s inauguration of the N-Power Batch C on the National Social Investment Management Systems (NASIMS).
The minister said, “As we launch the N-Power Batch C today, all N-Power Batch C applicants are required to log into the N-Power Self Service portal on www.nasims.gov.ng.”
“A dedicated support helpline has been provided to aid applicants through the process.
“The ICT Consultant on NASIMS, David Ibhawoh, assured that the portal would not experience crashes or challenges.”
For N-Power applicants, please make sure your records are fully updated on the NASIMS portal.
For first time user, recover your password using the underlisted procedures:
(1) Click on login : https://nasims.gov.ng/login
(2) Use the “Forgot Password” Option
(3) Enter your N-POWER application email
(4) Click on “Send Link”
(5) Check your mail and follow the instructions to reset your password.
(6) After resetting your password successfully, please login to update your records.
For N-Power Test
Before taking the test, endeavor to follow the steps below in order to score high.
(1) After updating your records to qualify you for the online computer based test (CBT).
(2) Write down the NASIMS ID, this id will be the key that will enable you access the test questions.
(3) Make sure your browser and Network are strong enough to access the webpage.
(4) Advise the applicants to study the past questions and Answers below before taking the test as some questions may be repeated.
(5) Applicants are to read the questions very well, fast and alternately to enable them maximize the twenty (20) minutes test duration.
(6) Don’t waste your time on a particular question since there is no room to skip any question.
(7) There will be Twenty (20) questions to be answered within a time frame of 20 minutes.
(8) Every applicant have a maximum of three attempt should in case of time out.
(9) Lastly, the N-Power test questions relating to Numerical, Quantitative, Sentence correction, IQ questions, Current affairs etc.
We posted below several N-power test questions and their corresponding answers for candidates to follow in preparation for the N-Power Batch C exam.
NOTE: This test is time-based and you are expected to answer 20 questions within 20 minutes and the test cannot be retaken after submission. Also, you cannot skip any question as every question is allotted equal score.
If you are timed out after the third attempt without submitting, you will not be able to take the test again.
Here are past N-power test questions and the ongoing sample questions from the test.
1. The Capital of Lagos State is_____
A. Bariga
B. Isale-Eko
C. Eko
D. Ikeja
E. Ikorodu
ANSWER is D (Ikeja)
2. If the day tomorrow is Sunday, what was it yesterday?
A. Monday
B. Tuesday
C. Friday
D. Saturday.
ANSWER: C (Friday)
3. Who is the current Governor of the Central Bank of Nigeria
A. Alhaji Mai Borno
B. Sanusi Lamido Sanusi
C. Godwin Emefiele
D. Adamu Chiroma
E. Charles Soludo.
ANSWER: C (Godwin Emefiele)
4. In words number 14 can be written as _________
A. Forteen.
B. Fourteen.
C. Fortin.
D. Fourtin.
ANSWER: B (Fourteen)
5. [Choose the one that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the uppercase word.]
Few people prefer the RURAL to the ______ areas.
A. Urban
B. Modern
C. Pastoral
D. Central
E. Rustic
ANSWER: A (Urban)
6. A piece of land completely surrounded by water is known as_________
A. A platform
B. A lagoon
C. A lake
D. An Island
E. None of the options.
ANSWER: D (an Island)
7. Bose shouldn’t have interrupted the teacher, _________?
Select one:
A. Could she
B. Didn’t she
C. Should she
D. Did she
E. Can she.
ANSWER: C (should she)
8. Are you willing to be deployed to a rural area?
a. YES
b. NO
9. At this time, do you have any computer programming or software development skills?
a. YES
b. NO
10. At this time, which one or a combination of these devices do you own:
Select one or more:
a. Smartphone (mobile phones with Internet capabilities)
b. Laptop
c. Tablet
11. Do you have any physical disability?
Select one:
a. Yes
b. No
12. Gender?
Select one:
a. Female
b. Male
13. Which of these classifications and/ or post-graduate degrees apply to you?
Select one:
a. 3rd Class / Pass
b. 1st Class / Distinction and Masters
c. 2nd Class Lower / Lower Credit + PGD
d. 1st Class / Distinction
e. 3rd Class /Pass + PGD
f. 2nd Class Upper / Upper Credit
g. 2nd Class Upper / Upper Credit + PGD
h. 3rd Class / Pass + Masters
i. 2nd Class Lower / Lower Credit
j. 2nd Class Lower / Lower Credit + Masters
k. 2nd Class Upper / Upper Credit + Masters
l. 1st Class / Distinction and PGD
14. What is your current employment status?
Select one:
a. Full-time
b. Part-time
c. Freelance
d. Unemployed
15. A car travels at xkm per hour for 1 hour at ykm per hour for 2 hours. Find its average speed.
A. 2x+2y/3 kmh^-1
B. x+ y/3 kmh^-1
C. x+2 y/3 kmh^-1
D. 2x+ y/3 kmh^-1
ANSWER: C (x+2 y/3 kmh^-1)
16. The ages of three men are in the ratio 3:4:5. If the difference between the ages of the oldest and youngest is 18 years, find the sum of the ages of the three men.
A. 45 years
B. 72 years
C. 108 years
D. 216 years
ANSWER: C (108 years)
17. A bicycle wheel of radius 42cm is rolled over a distance of 66m. How many revolutions does it make? [Take π=22/7]
A. 2.5
B. 5
C. 25
D. 50
ANSWER: C (25)
18. In a bag of oranges, the ratio of the good ones to the bad ones is 5:4. If the number of bad ones in the bag is 36, how many oranges are there altogether?
A. 81
B. 72
C. 54
D. 45
ANSWER: A (81)
19. A man is four times as old as his son. The difference between their ages is 36. Find the sum of their ages.
A. 45 years`
B. 48 years
C. 60 years
D. 74 years
ANSWER: C (60)
20. If 4m+3n = 5, find the ratio m:n 4m-3n 3
A. 7:4
B. 4:3
C. 3:4
D. 4:7
ANSWER: A (7:4)
21. If 2x : (x+1) =3:2, what is the value of x?
A. ½
B. 1
C. 1½
D. 3
ANSWER: D (3)
22. The ratio of the number of men to the number of women in a 20 member committee is 3:1. How many women must be added to the 20 member committee so as to make the ratio of men to women 3:2 ?
A. 2
B. 5
C. 7
D. 9
ANSWER: B (5)
23. What is the probability of having an odd number in a single toss of a fair die?
A. 1/6
B. 1/3
C. ½
D. 2/3
ANSWER: C (1/2)
24. Which of the following is true regarding access lists applied to an interface?
A. You can place as many access lists as you want on any interface until you run out of memory.
B. You can apply only one access list on any interface.
C. One access list may be configured, per direction, for each layer 3 protocol configured on an interface.
D. You can apply two access lists to any interface.
Answer: Option C
25. Which command would you use to apply an access list to a router interface?
A. ip access-list 101 out
B. access-list ip 101 in
C. ip access-group 101 in
D. access-group ip 101 in
Answer: Option C
26. Which of the following is an example of a standard IP access list?
A. access-list 110 permit host 1.1.1.1
B. access-list 1 deny 172.16.10.1 0.0.0.0
C. access-list 1 permit 172.16.10.1 255.255.0.0
D. access-list standard 1.1.1.1
Answer: Option B
27. You need to create an access list that will prevent hosts in the network range of 192.168.160.0 to 192.168.191.0. Which of the following lists will you use?
A. access-list 10 deny 192.168.160.0 255.255.224.0
B. access-list 10 deny 192.168.160.0 0.0.191.255
C. access-list 10 deny 192.168.160.0 0.0.31.255
D. access-list 10 deny 192.168.0.0 0.0.31.255
Answer: Option C
28. You are working on a router that has established privilege levels that restrict access to certain functions. You discover that you are not able to execute the command show running-configuration. How can you view and confirm the access lists that have been applied to the Ethernet 0 interface on your router?
A. show access-lists
B. show interface Ethernet 0
C. show ip access-lists
D. show ip interface Ethernet 0
Answer: Option D
29. The object definition language (ODL) is which of the following?
A. Used to develop logical schemas
B. A data definition language for OODB
C. A method to implement a logical schema
D. All of the above.
Answer: Option D
30. An atomic literal is which of the following?
A. Strings
B. Boolean
C. Long
D. All of the above.
Answer: Option D
31. Which of the following is true concerning an ODBMS?
A. They have the ability to store complex data types on the Web.
B. They are overtaking RDBMS for all applications.
C. They are most useful for traditional, two-dimensional database table applications.
D. All of the above.
Answer: Option A
32. The reserved word enum is used for which of the following?
A. To define a range for an attribute.
B. To define a range for a class.
C. To define a range for a relationship.
D. All of the above.
Answer: Option A
33. Which of the following is an unordered collection of elements that may contain duplicates?
A. Set
B. Bag
C. List
D. Dictionary
Answer: Option B
34. When using the SQL INSERT statement:
A. rows can be modified according to criteria only.
B. rows cannot be copied in mass from one table to another only.
C. rows can be inserted into a table only one at a time only.
D. rows can either be inserted into a table one at a time or in groups.
Answer: Option D
35. What is not an advantage of stored procedures?
A. Greater security
B. SQL can be optimized
C. Code sharing
D. Increased network traffic
Answer: Option D
36. A reason for using an SQL view to hide columns is:
A. to simplify a result only.
B. to prevent the display of sensitive data only.
C. to accomplish both of the above.
D. None of the above are reasons for using an SQL view.
Answer: Option C
37. Which of the following is an SQL trigger supported by Oracle?
A. BEFORE
B. INSTEAD OF
C. AFTER
D. All of the above.
Answer: Option D
38. The SQL ALTER statement can be used to:
A. change the table structure.
B. change the table data.
C. add rows to the table.
D. delete rows from the table.
Answer: Option A
39. What SQL structure is used to limit column values of a table?
A. The LIMIT constraint
B. The CHECK constraint
C. The VALUE constraint
D. None of the above is correct.
Answer: Option B
40. Which is NOT one of the most common types of SQL CHECK constraints?
A. System date
B. Range checks
C. Lists of values
D. Comparing one column value to another within the same table
Answer: Option A
41. What is an advantage of placing computations in SQL views?
A. To save users from having to write an expression.
B. To ensure that the results are consistent.
C. To accomplish both of the above.
D. None of the above is correct – computations cannot be placed in a view.
Answer: Option C
42. Views constructed from SQL SELECT statements that conform to the SQL-92 standard may not contain:
A. GROUP BY.
B. WHERE.
C. ORDER BY.
D. FROM.
Answer: Option C
43. In a network with dozens of switches, how many root bridges would you have?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 12
Answer: Option A
44. What PPP protocol provides dynamic addressing, authentication, and multilink?
A. NCP
B. HDLC
C. LCP
D. X.25
Answer: Option C
45. What is a stub network?
A. A network with more than one exit point.
B. A network with more than one exit and entry point.
C. A network with only one entry and no exit point.
D. A network that has only one entry and exit point.
Answer: Option D
46. If your router is facilitating a CSU/DSU, which of the following commands do you need to use to provide the router with a 64000bps serial link?
A. RouterA(config)#bandwidth 64
B. RouterA(config-if)#bandwidth 64000
C. RouterA(config-if)#clock rate 64
D. RouterA(config-if)#clock rate 64000
Answer: Option D
47. Which one of the following is true regarding VLANs?
A. Two VLANs are configured by default on all Cisco switches.
B. VLANs only work if you have a complete Cisco switched internetwork. No off-brand switches are allowed.
C. You should not have more than 10 switches in the same VTP domain.
D. VTP is used to send VLAN information to switches in a configured VTP domain.
Answer: Option D
48. A hall is 15 m long and 12 m broad. If the sum of the areas of the floor and the ceiling is equal to the sum of the areas of four walls, the volume of the hall is:
A. 720
B. 900
C. 1200
D. 1800
49. A cistern of capacity 8000 litres measures externally 3.3 m by 2.6 m by 1.1 m and its walls are 5 cm thick. The thickness of the bottom is:
A. 90 cm
B. 1 dm
C. 1 m
D. 1.1 cm
50. An industrial loom weaves 0.128 metres of cloth every second. Approximately, how many seconds will it take for the loom to weave 25 metres of cloth?
A. 178
B.195
C. 204
D. 488
51. The least multiple of 7, which leaves a remainder of 4, when divided by 6, 9, 15 and 18 is:
A. 74
B. 94
C. 184
D. 364
52. The greatest number which on dividing 1657 and 2037 leaves remainders 6 and 5 respectively, is:
A. 123
B. 127
C. 235
D. 305
53. Find the greatest number that will divide 43, 91 and 183 so as to leave the same remainder in each case.
A. 4
B. 7
C. 9
D. 13
54. Which of the following fraction is the largest ?
A. 7/8
B. 13/16
C. 31/40
D. 63/80
55. 3 pumps, working 8 hours a day, can empty a tank in 2 days. How many hours a day must 4 pumps work to empty the tank in 1 day?
A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12
56. One pipe can fill a tank three times as fast as another pipe. If together the two pipes can fill the tank in 36 minutes, then the slower pipe alone will be able to fill the tank in:
A. 81 min.
B. 108 min.
C. 144 min.
D. 192 min.
57. A man walked diagonally across a square lot. Approximately, what was the percent saved by not walking along the edges?
A. 20
B. 24
C. 30
D. 33
58. What is the probability that the surname of a child picked at random from the class begins with either O and A?
A. 5/8
B. 7/8
C. 9/16
D. 14/25
ANSWER: A (5/8)
59. If more than one surname begins with a letter besides A and O, how many surnames begin with the letter?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: B (3)
60. Have you moved into your new house yet? Not yet.The rooms________.
A. is being painted
B. None of the options
C. is painted
D. are painted
E. are being painted
ANSWER: E (are being painted)
61. The closest government to the people is_______
A. Federal Government
B. United Nation
C. Local Government
D. Ward Government
E. State Government
ANSWER: C (Local Government)
62. Brazil is a country in
A. America
B. Africa
C. Europe
D. Asia
ANSWER: A (America)
63. A reflex angle is______
A. greater than 90 and less than
B. greater than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees.
C. 160 degrees.
D. less than 45 degrees.
E. less than 90 degree.
ANSWER: B (greater than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees)
64. What should I ask my mother?
Select one:
A. Ask her when will be ready the food.
B. Ask her when will be the food ready.
C. Ask her when the food will be ready.
D. Ask her when will the food ready be.
ANSWER: C (Ask her when the food will be ready)
65. What ______ your favourite food as a child?
Select one:
A. will
B. would
C. where
D. was
ANSWER: D (was)
66. “Those shopping bags look really heavy. _____ carry one for you?” ’That’s very kind of you!’
Select one:
A. Will I
B. Do I have
C. Shall I
D. Do I
ANSWER: C (shall I)
67. Nigeria became a republic in ___________.
Select one:
A. 1st October, 1960
B. 1st October, 1961
C. 1st October, 1962
D. 1st October, 1963
ANSWER: D (1st October, 1963)
68. Nigeria is named after a:
Select one:
A. River
B. Lake
C. Mountain
D. People
ANSWER: A (River)
69. Nigeria’s governmental constitution is chiefly based on that of the:
Select one:
A. USA
B. UK
C. EU
D. Netherlands
ANSWER: B (UK)
70. Nigeria is divided into _____ geopolitical zones.
Select one:
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 8
ANSWER: C (6)
71. The file belongs to Mr. Bobo, give it to _______.
Select one:
A. it
B. she
C. him
D. he
ANSWER: C (him)
72. I have never ______ such a boring book!
Select one:
A. read
B. readed
C. red
D. readeto
ANSWER: A (read)
73. We’re really looking forward ______ on a holiday.
Select one:
A. to gone
B. going
C. go
D. to going
ANSWER: D (to going)
74. Have you called the restaurant about the booking? Yes, I’ve _____ done that.
Select one:
A. soon
B. already
C. yet
D. may
ANSWER: B (already)
75. I’ll never forget _____ Rosa win the Eurovision.
Select one:
A. see
B. saw
C. seeing
D. seen
ANSWER: C (seeing)
76. It was so nice seeing Simon again! We should have called him _______.
Select one:
A. months back
B. to months
C. since months
D. in months
ANSWER: A (months back)
77. The Obudu Cattle Ranch is an example of a ____________ in Nigeria.
Select one:
A. tourists’ activations
B. tourism potentials
C. tourist attraction
D. tourism activations
ANSWER:
78. Which desert’s edge is found at Nigeria’s northernmost borderland?
Select one:
A. Savanah
B. Sahara
C. Tropical
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B (Sahara)
79. The highest court in Nigeria is?
Select one:
A. The Supreme Court
B. The National Industrial Court
C. The Federal High Court
D. The Privy Council
ANSWER: A (The Supreme Court)
80. _______is anything that has weight and can occupy space.
Select one:
A. an object
B. a solid
C. matter
D. a mineral
ANSWER: C (matter)
81. Tom ______ Elizabeth to go to the hospital
Select one:
A. told
B. said
c. saying to
D. telling to
ANSWER: A (told)
82. Thanks for remembering my birthday, but you……..bought me a present.
Select one:
A. shouldn’t have
B. can
c. mustn’t
D. have had to
ANSWER: A (shouldn’t have)
83. With what do we catch a thief?
A. Thief
B. Police
C. Soldier
D. Gun
E. Army
ANSWER: B (Police)
84. Which of the following non alcoholic beverages is known as “Queen Beverage:
A. Coffee
B. Tea
C. Cocoa
D. Cola
E. Lipton
ANSWER: B (Tea)
85. If the word LEADER is code as 20-12-19-12-13-26, how would you write LIGHT?
A. 20-16-15-17-22
B. 20-16-17-15-27
C. 20-15-16-18-22
D. 20-17-15-16-28
E Lawyer
ANSWER: Option D (20-17-15-16-28)
Note: Some of the N-Power test questions answers here may not be correct, so you should endeavor to check thoroughly and answer the questions yourself.